Nursing multiple choice questions: 1. How are drugs sorted into therapeutic groups and classes?

A. first by the conditions that they are used to treat. and then by their mechanisms of action

B. first by their mechanisms of action. and then by their therapeutic effects

C. first by their side effects. and then by their therapeutic effects

D. first by their toxicity. and then by their effectiveness

2. Bone marrow transplants…

A. require that the patient first undergo chemotherapy or radiation to kill the diseased stem cells and promote white blood cell production.

B. are a type of stem cell therapy. unless patient’s own cells are reinjected.

C. are always a type of stem cell therapy.

D. can help people with leukemia. a condition in which the body does not produce enough white blood cells.

3. What does AMA stand for?

A. American Medical Academy

B. American Medical Accreditation

C. American Medical Association

D. Association of Medical Assistants

4. What section of a drug’s package insert describes situations in which the drug should not be used because the risks outweigh the therapeutic benefits?

A. adverse reactions

B. contraindications

C. overdosage

D. warning/precautions

5 What is tertiary care?

A. adding medications together to achieve a better clinical effect

B. highly specialized medical and surgical care provided by a large medical center for unusual or complex medical problems

C. receiving medical or surgical care that does not require an overnight stay in the treatment facility

D. seeing a physician for routine checkups and general healthcare

6. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages in the classic approach to brand development strategy covered in your manual?

A. brand personality

B. brand positoning

C. brand quality

D. brand values

7 What are vasodilators used to do?

A. decrease vascular resistance and increase blood flow

B. mimic pathogens to stimulate the immune system

C. narrow the blood vessels

D.stimulate the CNS to make the heart beat faster

8. What is the name of the condition that occurs after a specific dose of a drug is given at such regular intervals that absorption and elimination (and therefore drug plasma concentration) have become fairly constant?

A. homeostasis

B. steady state

C. titration

D. tolerance

9. Which statement is TRUE about ocular administration?

A. Ocular administration is primarily for drugs that must cross the blood-brain barrier.

B. Ocular administration is used primarily to treat the eye.

C. Ocular administration is used when a drug must enter the bloodstream immediately.

D. Ocular administration is used when a drug must produce immediate effects on the brain or spinal cord.

10. Which entities invest’s the most money in pharmaceutical R&D?

A. Canadian pharmaceutical companies

B. the NIH

C. the U.S. Government

D. U.S. pharmaceutical companies

11. How are most drugs excreted?

A. via the bloodstream

B. via the heart

C. via the kidneys

D. via the skin

12. Over the last few decades, what has happened to legal limitations on sales’ reps discussions about off label uses?

A. Limitations have decreased.

B. Limitations have increased significantly.

C. Limitations have increased slightly.

D. Limitations have remained about the same.

13. Answer:Branding name

14. What does it mean if two drugs are at parity?

A. Both drugs are essentially in a neutral position.

B. Both drugs are generics.

C. Both drugs have exclusive preferred status.

D. The two drugs are bioequivalent.

15. Who is most likely to benefit from electronic sampling programs?

A. Everyone would benefit equally from electronic sampling programs

B. physicians in hospitals who are too busy to see representatives

C. physicians in rural areas who are not as frequently visited by representatives

D. physicians in urban areas who are too busy to see representatives

16. When referring to medication dosage, which abbreviation means “one-half’:

A. MS

B. OH

C. SM

D. SS

17 What is an internist?

A. a physician who practices internal medicine

B. a physician’s intern

C. a type of oncologist who specializes in chemotherapy

D. an internal sales representative

18. Which of the following is a type of white blood cell?

A. erythrocytes

B. insulin

C. Lymphocytes

D.HCs

19. Why are novice sales representatives often placed in charge of negotiating MCO formularies?

A. to become more familiar with the healthcare industry

B. to become more familiar with their territories

C. P&T committees are more receptive to new faces.

D. They are not. This job is usually reserved for more experienced reps.

20. What distinguishes pharmacodynamics from pharmacokinetics?

A. Pharmacodynamics studies a drug’s ex vivo effects.

B. Pharmacodynamics studies how drugs affect the body.

C. Pharmacodynamics studies the how the body affects drugs.

D. Pharmacodynamics studies the time required for a drug’s absorption.

21 What proportion of the drugs tested on human subjects are eventually approved by the FDA?

A. about 20%

B. about 60%

C. about 70%

D. about 95%

22. According to a study discussed in your manual, how do most physicians prefer to receive their drug samples?

A. by borrowing them from hospitals

B. by ordering them over the Internet

C. by trading them for services

D. directly from sales representatives

23. Which of the following is an example of a central value?

A. I buy Advil to show that I’m a modern consumer.

B. I like Advil because we were both born in the 80s.

C. I prefer Advil because I like the flavor.

D. I prefer Advil because it’s easier to swallow.

24. Which of the following specialties likely has the MOST emergency calls?

A. cardiology

B. psychiatry

C. urology

D. All specialists have the same number of emergency calls.

25. What affects the rate of active transport?

A. the availability of carriers. but not energy

B. the availability of energy. but not carriers

C. the availability of carriers and energy

D. neither the availability of carriers nor the availability of energy

26. Over the last few decades, what has happened to the FDA approval time for new drugs?

A. It has been lengthened to ensure safer drug products.

B. It has been lengthened to limit DTC marketing

C. It has been shortened to improve drug quality

D. It has been shortened to reduce the cost of new drug development.

27. Which of the following would NOT help improve compliance?

A. patients liking their providers

B. patients using only one pharmacist

C. pharmacists understanding how generics differ from brand name drugs

D. support groups

28. Which entity chooses a drug’s trade name?

A. the drug’s inventor

B. the drug’s manufacturer

C. the FDA

D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council

29. What type of stem cells are obtained from embryos and can develop into any cell type?

A. multipotent

B. pluripotent

C. totipotent

D. All stem cells can develop into any cell type.

30. As the price a patient pays for a prescription increases, what happens to the likelihood that the patient will fill it?

A. It decreases.

B. It increases.

C. It remains unaffected because the prescription is needed.

D. It remains unaffected because the prescription’s increased cost is offset by its perceived value.

31. Most involuntary movements come from which type of muscle tissue?

A. cardiac and smooth

B. only skeletal

C. skeletal and cardiac

D. skeletal and smooth

32. Which of the following is NOT one of the body’s major organ systems?

A. the cardiovascular system

B. the cellular system

C. the gastrointestinal system

D. the musculoskeletal system

33. How do most drugs exert their primary physiological effects?

A. by activating synapses between different types of tissues

B. by binding to cell receptors that are sensitive to their presence

C. by inhibiting synapses between different types of tissues

D. through genetic mutation

34. What is the most reliable source of information for determining therapeutically equivalent drug products?

A. AMA guide

B. Blue Book

C. FDA drug list

D. Orange Book

35. What does subcutaneous mean?

A. beneath the intervention

B. beneath the muscle tissue

C. beneath the outer skin

D. beneath the suture

36. What should a sales representative do if all of the prime spaces in a drug cabinet are coccupied?

A. ask staff for permission to move some of the other products in the cabinet

B. ask staff for permission to throw away expired products in the cabinet

C. ask the doctor if he still needs some of the other products in the cabinet

D. surreptitiously move your largest competitors’ products out of the way

37. It is inappropriate for physicians’ prescribing behaviors to be educated by their personal tastes and idiosyncrasies

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

38.The FDA defines API as the active__ ingredient in a drug, which produces the desired change in the body.

A. pharmaceutical

B. positive

C. potent

D. primary

39. What are the 2 legal classifications of wholesalers?

A. distributors and supply chains

B. pharmacists and NAMs

C. primary and secondary wholesale distributors

D. retailers and institutions

40.What term describes the usage of a medication for purposes other than the FDA-approved indications on the labeling?

A. contraindicative indication

B. off-indication usage

C or D. off-label

41. What is the acronym for pharmacokinetics?

A. KN

B. PC

C. PK

D. pT

42. The dosage range of a drug that is both safe and beneficial is known as the therapeutic window.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

43. What is typically NOT a characteristic of a pharmaceutical sales rep?

A. Pharmaceutical sales reps are authentic and real.

B. Pharmaceutical sales reps are creative.

C. Pharmaceutical sales reps are focused.

D. Pharmaceutical sales reps are not concerned about competitors.

44. What entity grants drug patents?

A. the FDA

B. the FDA if the drug is over-the-counter and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is prescription

C. the FDA if the drug is prescription and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is over-the-counter

D. the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office

45. Which of the following refers to all active and inert pharmaceutical ingredients in a drug, including fillers and colors?

A. formulation

B. mycoplasma

C. peptide

D. saccharide

46. What is the difference between potency and efficacy?

A. Doctors prefer more potent drugs.

B. Drug manufacturers prefer more potent drugs.

C. Potency refers to the drug’s effectiveness. while efficacy refers to its strength.

D. Potency refers to the drug’s strength, while efficacy refers to its effectiveness.

47. What is the minimum level of education required for a nurse practitioner?

A. a certification program

B. an associate’s degree

C. a bachelor’s degree

D. a graduate degree

48. How many names must a drug have?

A. at most three

B. at least three

C. at most five

D. at least five

49. How has a longer development time increased the cost of bringing a new drug to market?

Answer: Increasing the cost of capital

Explanation: Drug development is the procedure of bringing a new pharmaceutical drug to the market once a run multiple has been identified through the manner of druginvention. In lengthening development time radically increase the cost of bringing a new drug to pharmaceutical market by increasing the cost of capital required for R&D. For pharmacy companies the cost of capital increases are uncovered to Economic Risk and ambiguity over a long time of development time. Stringent Food and Drug Administration (FDA) rule and long approval times have really increased the cost of developing new drugs.

50. Senior citizens consume over times as many pharmaceuticals as people under 65.

A. three

B. five

C. ten

D. fifteen

51. What agency regulates the distribution and use of narcotics?

A. DEA

B. FTC

C. OIG

D.TSA

52. What is passive diffusion?

A. a type of pinocytosis

B. membrane transport via vesicles

C. the use of energy to help a substance pass from a low concentration gradient to a high one

D. when a substance freely moves through a membrane from a high concentration gradient to a low one

53. What are the MAIN categories of drugs under FDA jurisdiction?

A. active drugs and active placebos

B. biopharmaceuticals and nutraceuticals

C. non-prescription and nutraceuticals

D. prescription and non prescription

54. Answer:Oxytocin

55. What are all metabolites?

A. active substances

B. inactive substances

C. injections

D. products of metabolism

56. When a drug is administered orally, where does first-pass metabolism occur?

A. intestine

B. liver

C. pancreas

D. stomach

57. What is the medical term for swelling?

A. assay

B. edema

C. instillation

D. protease

58. Which of the following is NOT part of the Seven Step Cascade of Emotion?

A. be a consultant. not a rep

B. identify what your product does

C. reflect

D. visualize the power of 10

59. Which part of a clinical research paper is frequently referred to as the road map?

A. abstract

B. findings

C. letter to the editor

D . methods

60. Which of the following is a main active ingredient in lung surfactants?

A. animal lung extract

B. germicides

C. sympathomimetic drugs

D. theophylline

61. What does parenteral mean?

A. child prescriptions

B. injection

C. oral

D. tablet

62. Which term denotes a type of substance that enhances the action of a drug or antigen?

A. adjuvant

B. indicated

C. ligase

D peptide

63. If a sales representative’s product is placed on the second tier of a standard three-tier formulary, which of the following is most likely true?

A. It has not been reviewed by the P&T committee.

B. It is in a neutral position unless it is at parity with other drugs.

C. It probably has exclusive preferred status if it is not at parity with any other drugs.

D. It will essentially sell itself if it is granted exclusive preferred status.

64. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic transport mechanisms?

A. active transport

B. homeostasis

C. passive diffusion

D. pinocytosis

65. Which statement accurately describes a relationship between drug agonists and antagonists?

A. Agonists and antagonists can be used together.

B. Agonists and antagonists should not be used together.

C. Antagonist drugs activate receptors. while agonists block access to receptors.

D. Antagonists are endogenous whereas agonists are man-made.

66. What is the study of the effects and movement of drugs in the human body?

A. anatomy

B. antology

C. clinical pharmacology

D. pathology

67. According to your manual, what is a common complaint that physicians have about traditional sampling methods?

A. that drug sample supply is too unpredictable

B. that patients are less likely to take free samples because they think they are lower quality

C. that patients do not like seeing drug representatives in their offices

D. that they receive too many drug samples

68. Which of these entities is formed by two or more hospitals or other healthcare entities to negotiate reduced rates with its aggregated purchasing power?

A. GPO

B. In-state wholesaler

C. PPO

D. RPO

69. What is another name for a drug derived from a biologic compound?

A. large molecule

B. oligonucleotide

C. orgaanism

D. small molecule

70. What is the most common policy regarding pharmaceutical reps dispensing drug samples in hospitals?

A. By federal law. drug sampling is permitted in all hospitals.

B. By federal law. it is up to individual physicians. not the hospital.

C. Drug sampling is encouraged. but not required.

D. Drug sampling is often forbidden.

71 Which of the following would help you build trust with a physician?

A. asking if he or she is having any problems with the managed care coverage of your products

B. repeating a question you already asked

C. surprising the office staff with a new poster in the break room

D. None of these would help you build trust with a physician.

72. What term denotes the difference between the usual effective dose and the dose that induces severe or life-threatening side effects?

A. dose-response relationship

B. margin of safety

C. the placebo effect

D. therapeutic window

73. What are excipients?

A. a type of cell receptor to which antagonists bind to decrease the effects of the body’s natural agonists

B. another term for generic equivalents

C. sites of action besides the target sites of action

D. the inert ingredients in a drug formulation

74. What is another term for the AWP?

A. dock-to-dock price

B. float price

C. list price

D. non-stock price

75. Which of these is the most likely use for a uterotonic agent?

A. to induce labor

B. to make the urine more alkaline

C. to supplement oral food intake

D. to treat hyperthyroidism

76. As of November 2013, which of these countries has legalized DTC advertising of prescription drugs?

A. Canada

B. Japan

C. Spain

D. none of these

77. Why are oral drugs often taken on an empty stomach?

A. to be more wholly absorbed by the stomach

B. to minimize absorption by the intestine

C. to minimize nausea

D. to pass through the stomach more quickly

78. What is one factor that differentiates community health centers from hospitals?

A. Community health center formularies are more restrictive.

B. Community health centers have higher reimbursement rates.

C. Newer brand name drugs are easier to access at community health centers.

D. None of these

79. How does drug sampling provide a social benefit?

A. Doctors donate their unused drug samples to charities.

B. Doctors often use drug samples to treat patients who otherwise could not afford it.

C. It allows patients to try out different prescription medications before consulting with physicians.

D. Drug sampling provides a social benefit in all of these ways.

80. Which medical term denotes the use of a stethoscope to listen to the heart?

A. auscultation

B. cardioversion

C. catheterization

D. echocardiography